2018年江西省中考英语试卷真题【word版 含答案】

注：本省各市采用统一试卷，以下是今年江西省中考英语试卷及答案：

说明:1.全卷满分120分,考试时间120分钟。

2.请将答案写在答题卡上,否则不给分。

一、听力测试(27分)

现在是试听时间。请听一段对话,然后回答问题。

What is the boy going to buy?

A. Some juice.

B. Some oranges.

C. Some apples.

答案是C

A)请听下面8段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。(每小题1分)

1. What would the girl like to buy?

A. A phone.

B. A camera.

C. A watch.

2. Where is Linda?

A. In the laboratory.

B. In the library.

C. In the bookstore.

3. How's the weather today?

A. Cold.

B. Warm.

C. Cool.

4. Who is playing a video game with Jack?

A. His brother.

B. His sister.

C. His cousin.

5. What's the doctor's advice?

A. Talking more exercise.

B. Taking some medicine.

C. Drinking some milk.

6. Why is Jane crying?

A. Because she is hungry.

B. Because she needs sleep.

C. Because her toy is lost.

7. When does the movie finish?

A. At 8:30

B. At 9:30

C. At10:30

8. What does Mr. Smith mean?

A. Kate works hard at football training.

B. Kate should not stop football training.

C. Kate gives a good reason for her decision.

B)请听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。(每小题1分)

请听第1段材料,回答第9、10小题。

9. How does the girl feel now?

A. Relaxed.

B. Stressed.

C. Excited.

10. What does the girl do before an exam?

A. She does more homework.

B. She asks teachers for help.

C She listens to music.

请听第2段材料,回答第11、12小题。

11. When did the man move to a new place?

A. Last week.

B. Last month.

C. Last year.

12. Which of the following is true?

A. The streets are dirty in the new area.

B. There are few cars around the new area.

C. The man may think about buying a bike.

请听第3段材料,回答第13至第15小题。

13. What kind of movies does Mary like?

A. Action movies.

B. Comedies.

C. Scary movies.

14. What might they do tonight?

A. Go shopping.

B. Go for a drink.

C. Stay at home.

15. What do we know about Peter and Mary?

A. Peter is interested in action movies.

B. Mary asks Peter to see a movie tonight.

C. They often eat out near their home.

请听第4段材料,回答第16至第18小题

16. What time is the man going to get up tomorrow morning?

A. At 6:00.

B. At 7:00.

C. At 8:00.

17. Where would the man like to have a meal this evening?

A. In the street.

B. In his room.

C. In the dining hall.

18. What can we get from the conversation?

A. There is a post office next to the hotel.

B. The man can get a free dinner in the hotel.

C. The man can use the Internet in the hotel.

请听第5段材料,回答第19至第22小题

19. Why is Tuesday a problem for Mr. Clark?

A. Because he has classes on that day.

B. Because he has a business trip on that day.

C. Because he has a teachers' meeting on that day.

20. How will the students go to the museum?

A. By train.

B. By bus.

C. By subway.

21. How much do they pay for a ticket in a student group?

A. $12

B. S20

C. $15

22. What can we learn from the monologue?

A. The museum is closed on weekends.

B. They’re going on the school tmp on Thursday.

C. Students have to get to the school at 1: 55.

C)请听下面一段独白,根据独白内容完成下列句子,每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。听独白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。(每小题1分)

23. The school opens _______.

24. There are three ______ for their lessons.

25. The students go to ______ to do their test

26. The students can buy ______ and snacks at break.

27. The English test only takes _____.

二、单项填空(8分)

请阅读下面各题,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(每小题1分)

28. The food is very delicious in that restaurant. We could go and ______ it?

A. sell

B. help

C. produce

D. try

29. Susan never gets upset when she has to wait in line. She is very ______ .

A. shy

B. honest

C. funny

D. patient

30.--Could I speak to Paul? I phoned _____.

--Sorry he is still in his meeting.

A. late

B. earlier

C. earliest

D. later

31. Sorry I'm late. I _______ with a friend and I completely forgot the time.

A. talk

B. am talking

C. was talking

D. will talk

32. I live near a big _______. It gets very noisy on match days.

A. hospital

B. store

C. bank

D. playground

33. -- Can students go online during lessons?

-- They can ________ it is for that lesson.

A. if

B. or

C. so

D. but

34. Kids have to take many after school classes. They _______ hard to study for good grades.

A. push

B. are pushed

C. are pushing

D. have pushed

35. We ________ a party for Kate It's supposed to be a surprise.

A. were having

B. had

C. will have

D. have had

三、完型填空(25分)

A)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(每小题1分)

There are purple clothes, purple handbags, purple bicycles, purple furniture, even purple computers! So purple is one of the most  36  colors today. But in the past, purple was a very expensive and unusual color. Let’s take a look at the rich  37  of the color purple.

Some scientists believe that the first plants to appear on Earth over 500 million years ago  38  looked purple, not green. Plants today are green because  39  use green chlorophyll (叶绿素) to produce energy.  40  these early plants probably used something called retinal, which is a dark purple color.

During the time of the roman Empire (37 BC-476 AD), it was very  41  to make purple dye (染料). The dye came from sea snails (海螺) .But10.000 dead sea snails  42  you just one gram (克)of purple dye… as well as a very bad smell! This  43  purple dye was called Tyrian purple, and it was the preferred  44  of emperors.

In 16th--century England, purple was 45 for the kings family members. Queen Elizabeth Is clothes were purple, but ordinary people were not allowed to  46  the color.

In 1856. William Perkin, an 18-year-old  47  student, noticed something strange while doing an experiment (实验). The chemicals (化学药品) he used to clean his instruments  48  with the chemicals he used in his experiment and produced a bright purple color. This  49  Perkin to start a company using this chemical mixture to make purple dye. The dye was much  50  than sea snail dye. Thanks to Perkin, now anyone can afford to wear purple clothes.

36. A. peaceful                              B. popular                              C. exciting                              D. serious

37. A. history                              B. style                              C. research                              D. product

38. A. gradually                              B. especially                C. exactly                              D. probably

39. A. others                              B. they                                            C. we                                            D. some

40. A. And                                            B. So                                            C. But                                            D. Until

41. A. dangerous                              B. common                              C. difficult                              D. strange

42. A. got                                            B. passed                              C. wasted                              D. cost

43. A. basic                                            B. harmful                               C. special                              D. perfect

44. A. color                                            B. smell                              C. plant                               D. animal

45. A. even                                            B. never                              C. seldom                              D. only

46. A. wear                                            B. sell                                            C. change                              D. make

47. A. geography                              B. science                              C. art                                             D. math

48. A. compared                 B. mixed                               C. collected                 D. kept

49. A. survey                               B. suggestion                C. discovery                D. exam

50. A. healthier                               B. thicker                               C. cheaper                               D. darker

B)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后用方框中所给词的适当形式填空,并将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。每个词限用一次。(每小题1分)

The planet Mars is the closest and most similar planet to Earth. It is very  51  to scientists. For example, Mars has seasons with  52  weather, but other planets have the same temperatures all year round. Was there  53  on Mars?

To find out, scientists need  54  if Mars ever had water. In 2004. two robot explores (探测器), or 'rovers', called Spirit and Opportunity were sent to look for  55  of water. These rovers can drive over rocks  56  all kind of rough ground. They can also use cameras and send photos  57   to Earth. First, the two rovers found chemicals and patterns (图文) in the rocks that were probably made by water. Then, they moved to another area and  58  other rocks which may have been created by water. Now scientists think there was probably water on the planet long ago. Today  59  are still not sure if there was life on the mars. They  60  need more information to decide. The discoveries of the two rovers answered some old questions, but they also brought up many new ones.

四、阅读理解（40分）

A)请阅读下面短文,根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将选项涂黑。(每小题2分)

A

Science museum

(The Science of Survival, IMAX&SIMEX)

The Science Museum has something for everyone. Entry to the museum is free. Offer applies to IMAX 3D Cinema, SIMEX and The Science of Survival exhibition only.

IMAX ￡7.50

SIMEX ￡4.00

The Science of Survival ￡6.00

Opening Times: Daily 10: 00-18: 00 Visit Time: 2 hours

National Gallery

Opening Times:

Daily 10am-7pm Wednesday until 9 pm

Admission:

￡8 adults. ￡4 students, under 12s free

Tickets:

Available daily from 10 am

Telephone: 020 7747 2885

Visituswww.nationalgallery.com

ZSL London Z

There are over 12, 000 amazing animals for you to see. These are just a few things which make a visit to ZSL London Zoo a great day.

Ticket Price: ￡ 17.00

Opening Times: Daily 10: 00-17: 30

Visit Time: 4 hours

61. How much does the ticket to ZSL London Zoo cost?

A.￡8.00.

B.￡17.50.

C.￡17.00.

D.￡7.50.

62. Where is the Science of Survival exhibition held?

A. At the National gallery

B. At the Science Museum

C. At ZSL London zoo

D. At IMAX 3D Cinema

63. How long is the National Gallery open on Wednesday?

A. 4 hours

B. 8 hours

C. 7 hours

D. 11 hours

B

A young woman turns around and around quickly, and jumps high. In the background, a young girl reads a rejection (拒绝) letter from a ballet school. You have the wrong body for ballet, 'it says,' and at thirteen, you are too old. This was one of the most popular advertisements (广告) of 2014 and it describes American ballet Theatre's principal (主要的) dancer Misty Copeland.

This was not a real letter. But Copeland says it is very similar to letters from her childhood. While many dancers start at the age of three. Copeland only began to study ballet in 1995 as a thirteen-year-old. People often told her that she was too old, or that she didn't have the perfect body type (She is only 157 cm tall). Her family moved a lot, and it was sometimes difficult for her to attend ballet classes. But Copeland loved dancing and did not want to give up. She stayed with her ballet teacher during the week and spent time with her family only at the weekend. This was a difficult life, but she worked hard and won her first national competition when she was fourteen years old. Copeland joined the American Ballet Theatre in 2000 and performed in many ballets over the next few years. In 2007, she became a solo (单独的) performer, and in 2015 she became its principal dancer.

Copeland is now a dancer, author and Broadway performer. She also stars in the 2015 film A Ballerina's Tale. So what's next? According to Copeland, anything is possible: "My career (职业) really is just now beginning.'

64. How old was Copeland when she became the principal dancer?

A. 13

B. 14

C. 25

D. 33

65. Why was it difficult for Copeland to attend ballet classes?

A. Because her family moved a lot.

B. Because she was not a good dancer.

C. Because she had no invitation letter.

D. Because she had the wrong body type.

66. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. Copeland became successful because of the advertisement.

B. Copeland had to spend a lot of time away from her parents.

C. Copeland won her first national competition as a solo performer.

D. Copeland has ended up her career as an actress on Broadway.

67 What's the writer’s opinion of Copeland?

A. Copeland sets an example who never gives up.

B. Copeland was too old to start ballet at thirteen.

C. Copeland has made her achievements by accident.

D. Copeland was lucky to get support from the ballet school.

C

Many people say dolphins are intelligent. They seem to be able to think, understand and learn things quickly. But are they as smart as humans, or are they more like cats and dogs? Dolphins use their brains quite differently from the way humans do. But scientists say dolphins and humans are very similar in some ways. How?

Like humans, every dolphin has its own "name". The name is a special whistle (哨声). Each dolphin chooses a specific (特有的) whistle for itself, usually by its first birthday Dolphins are like people in other ways, too. They "talk" to each other about a lot of things-such as their age, their feelings, and finding food. They also use a system of sounds and body language to communicate. Understanding dolphin conversation is not easy for humans. No one "speaks dolphin" yet, but some scientists are trying to learn.

Dolphins are also social animals. They live in groups called pods, and they often join others from different pods to play games and have fun--just like people. Scientists believe playing together is something only intelligent animals do.

Dolphins and humans are similar in another way: both species make plans for getting things they want. In the seas of southern Brazil, for example, dolphins use an intelligent plan to get food. When there are fish near a boat, dolphins signal (发信号) to the fishermen to put their nets in the water. Using this method, the men can catch a lot of fish. Why do dolphins help the men? There is an advantage for them they get to eat some of the fish that escape (逃脱) from the net.

68. What is a dolphin's “name”?

A. It is a kind of game.

B. It is a body sign.

C. It is a dolphin’s age.

D. It is a specific sound.

69. What does the underlined word "others" refer to?

A. Other fishes.

B. Other people

C. Other dolphins

D. Other games

70. What can we infer from the passage?

A. Some scientists can understand dolphins system of sounds.

B. Dolphins probably help fishermen by using their body language.

C Humans join dolphins' groups to get things we want.

D Dolphins can talk to humans about their age and their feelings.

71. What's the main idea of the passage?

A. Dolphins can communicate with each other at birth.

B. Dolphins are social animals because they play together.

C. Dolphins are smart and are like humans in some ways.

D. Dolphins help humans do many things like catching fish.

D

Every year on 15th October, over 200 million people around the world take part in Global Handwashing Day. But why do we have a day for something we do all the time? Well, research shows that not enough people often wash their hands with soap. Experts believe that this leads to the deaths of millions of people every year.

Sidibe, a public health expert says soap is the most beautiful invention in public health'. Washing your hands with soap can have a huge impact on reducing (减少) the spread of diseases. Handwashing with soap prevents babies from getting ill and keeps children healthy and in school.

However, washing hands with soap does not happen as often as you might think. This is partly because there aren't enough resources (资源) in poorer countries, but it's also because for many people, handwashing is simply not part of their everyday life. It's not easy to get people to change habits they learned in early childhood -- but this is what Global Handwashing Day wants to do.

In 2008, the Indian cricket team joined around 100 million Indian schoolchildren in washing their hands to promote (促进) the first ever Global Handwashing Day. Every year since then, many different events have been held around the world. In 2014. Global Handwashing Day was used in the fight against Ebola, a very serious disease, with events held in affected (受感染的) African countries.

Today, local and national leaders continue to use the day to spread the message about the importance of clean hands. The hope is that handwashing becomes a necessary part of people's lives and improves the health of millions around the world.

72. Who started Global Handwashing Day?

A. Public health experts.

B. The Indians.

C. African schoolchildren.

D. Government leaders.

73. What does the underlined word "impact" mean?

A. Danger.

B. Influence.

C. Background.

D. Problem.

74. What's the main idea of the last paragraph?

A. Washing hands with soap is good for public health.

B. Washing hands with soap doesn't become part of people's lives.

C. People are holding many different events to fight against diseases.

D. People all over the world are encouraged to wash hands with soap.

75. What would be the best title for the passage?

A. Learning to Use Soap.

B. Fighting Against Diseases.

C. Living a Healthy Life.

D. Changing Your Habits.

B)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意然后根据短文内容从下面方框内的七个选项中选择五个还原到文中,使短文意思通顺、结构完整,并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。(每小题2分)

Is there a connection between music and language? According to recent studies, the answer is yes:  76  Here, we look at two examples

A recent study by researcher Kraus shows that playing a musical instrument can improve a person's hearing ability.  77  The people in the first group were musicians, while those in the second group had no musical training. The musicians were able to hear the talking person more clearly.

78  Think about violinists in an orchestra (管弦乐团). When the violinists play with the group, they hear their own instrument and many others, too. But the violinists must listen closely to what they are playing, and pay no attention to the other sounds. In this way, musicians are able to focus on certain sounds, even in a room with lots of noise.

Schlaug, a doctor at Harvard Medical School, works with stroke (中风) patients. Because of their illness, these people cannot say their names, addresses, or other information normally. However, they can still sing.  79  Why does this work? Schlaug isn't sure. Music seems to make different parts of the brain work, including the damaged (损坏的) parts. This might help patients to use that part of the brain again.

Music improves concentration (注意力), memory, listening skills, and our overall language abilities.  80  Playing an instrument or singing can help us do better in school and keep our brain sharp (敏锐的) as we get older. Music is not only enjoyable, it's also good for us in many other ways.

五、补全对话(5分)

请阅读下面对话,根据对话内容从方框中选择恰当的句子填入空白处,使对话通顺、合理，意思完整,并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。(每空一句,每小题1分)

(Sandra and Luke plan their trip to Cape Town. S=Sandra L=Luke)

S:OK,that' s the flight(航班).Let’s look for a hotel now.  81 

L: Three nights--Friday, Saturday and Sunday. Are there any hotels near the airport?

S: Yes, there are. But they are expensive. Just a minute… no, there aren't any cheap hotels near the airport. They are all expensive.   82 

L: Wow! Well, what about a youth hostel(青年旅社)? Is there a youth hostel near the airport?

S: OK, let's see. I don't think so no, there isn't. I don't like youth hostels.   83 

L: OK. Let’s look in the city centre. Are there any cheap hotels there?

S: Yes, of course there are

L: Well, that's good. And is there a bus to the city centre?

S: A bus from the airport? Yes, there is.   84  There isn't a train, but that's OK.

L: And there are taxis, too.

S: 85  OK, so let's look at these hotels.

六、书面表达(15分)

假如国外中学生来你校进行为期一周的交流学习,期间计划参加一项中国传统文化的主题活动,为此向你们征求活动方案(plan)请你根据下面表格中的信息提示,写一篇英语短文,介绍你提供的活动方案,内容包括:茶或者民乐介绍,活动安排以及与之相关的理由。

要求:1.从表格中任选一个主题,合理安排活动;

2.短文条理清楚,行文连贯,内容可适当发挥;

3.短文中不能出现真实的人名和地名;

4.词数不少于80,开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。

Hello, friends. I've got a plan for you which may help you learn about Chinese culture. First of all, I'd like to introduce _________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

Hope you will have a good time.

2018年江西中考英语试题及答案

参考答案

一、听力测试(共27小题,每小题1分,共27分

1-5 ABACA                                          6-10 CBBAC                                          11-15 BCABB                                          16-22 ABCCBAB

23. on Monday                            24. levels                                                        25 Room 16/ room 16              26. coffee                                          27. an hour/ one hour/1 hour

二、单项填空(共8小题,每小题1分,共8分)

28-31 DDBC                                          32-35 DABC

三、完形填空(共25小题,每小题1分,共25分)

A) 36-40 BADBC                             41-45 CACAD                             46-50 ABBCC

B) 51. interesting                             52. different                                          53. life                                          54. to know             

55. signs                                                        56. and                                                        57. back                                          58. found

59. they                                                        60. really

四、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2分,共40分)

61-63 CBD                                          64-67 DABA                                          68-71 DCBC                            72-75 BBDA

76-80 CGEFA

五、补全对话(共5小题,每小题1分,共5分)

81-85 DGEFA

六、书面表达(15分)

Possible Version One:

Hello, friends. I've got a plan for you which may help you learn about Chinese culture. First of all, I'd like to introduce tea. It has a long history. It is said that Shen Nong discovered it as a drink. Tea is one of the most popular drinks in China. So we will have some interesting activities about it for you.

On Saturday morning, you are going to visit a big farm where you can learn about tea processing. On Saturday afternoon, you are going to a tea house after dinner where you can watch a tea art performance.

Why do we plan a visit to a tea house for you? Because you can lean a lot more about tea culture there. You will see a young lady in a Chinese traditional dress who shows you how a cup of tea is made with tea sets, You can enjoy it and relax yourselves while listening to pieces of traditional folk music.

Hope you will have a good time.

Possible Version Two:

Hello, friends. I've got a plan for you which may help you learn about Chinese culture. First of all, I'd like to introduce Chinese folk music. We have many famous pieces of music such as Jasmine Flowers and Gaoshan Liushui. We have erhu, dizi and many other different musical instruments. So we will have some interesting activities about it for you.

You are going to talk musical instrument classes on Friday afternoon and our music teachers are going to teach you how to play musical instruments in the music rooms. On Saturday night, you are going to attend a folk music concert in the school hall.

Why will we hold a concert for you? There are talented students from our school who can play very well. It's a good chance for you to enjoy the beauty of some famous pieces of folk music and you will surely lose yourselves in them.

Hope you will have a good time.