2018年天津市中考英语模拟测试题【word版含答案】

2018年天津市中考英语模拟测试题【word版含答案】

由于格式问题，部分试题会存在乱码的现象，请考生点击全屏查看！

英  语

本试卷分为第I卷（选择题）、第Ⅱ卷（非选择题)两部分。第I卷为第1页至第8页，第Ⅱ卷为第9页至第11页。试卷满分120分。考试时间100分。

答卷前,请你务必将自己的姓名、考生号、考点校、考场号、座位号填写在“答题卡”

上，并在规定位置粘贴考试用条形码。答题时，务必将答案涂写在“答题卡”上，答案答在试卷上无效。考试结束后, 将本试卷和“答题卡”一并交回。

祝你考试顺利！

第I卷

注意亊项：

1.每题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把“答题卡”上对应题目的答案标号的信息点涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号的信息点。

2.本卷共五大题，共80分。

一、听力理解（本大题共 20小题，毎小题1分，共20分）

A)在下列每小题内，你将听到-个或两个句子并看到供选择的A、B、C三幅图画。找出与你所听句子内容相匹配的图画。

1.                                       

        A                         B                            C

2.                               

       A                          B                            C

3.                              

A                          B                            C

4.                             

A                          B                            C

B)下面你将听到十组对话，每组对话都有一个问题，根据对话内容，从每组所给的A、B

C三个选项中找出能回答所提问题的最佳选项。

5.What are they going to do tonight?

A.To watch TV.          B.To play football.     C. To see a film

6.Where is the man’s uncle from?

A. Australia.                        B. America.                        C. Japan.

7.Which sport will Michael take part in?

A.Tht 400metre race.

B.The 1OO-metre race,

C.The high jump.

8. How often does the woman clean her room?

A.Once a week                      B.Twice a wetk.       C. Three times a week

9.What does the woman want to drink?

A.Water.                          B. Tea.               C. Coffee

10.How long has the meeting been on?

A.20 minutes.                      B. 40 minutes.                     C Half an hour.

11.Wbat does John want to be?

A. A singer                      B.A teacher           C. An engineer

12.Who asks Jack to go to the teacher' office?

A. Betty.                          B. Jack.               C. Miss Yang.

13.Why was the man late?

A. Because it was raining.

B. Because the traffic was too heavy.

C. Because he missed the bus.

14.How did the man take the photos?

A. With a mobile phone.

B. With a camera.

C. With a conputer.

C)听下面长对话或独白，每段长对话或独白后都有几个问题，从题中所给的A、B、C三 个选项中选出最佳选项。

听下面一段材科，回答第15至第17题。

15.How did Amy feel about the maths homework?

A.Too difficult.                   B.Too easy        C.A bit difficult.

16.When are they going to meet?

A. At 5:00.                           B.At5:30,        C.At 6:00.

17.Who thinks English is easy?

A.Amy.                               B. Tom.                     C. Amy and Tom.

听下面一段材料， 回答第18至第20题。

18.How many kinds of kangaroos are tfam?

A. Twenty-seven.                  B. Thirty-seven.              C. Forty-seven.

19.How often does a kangaroo have a baby?

A.Twice a year.         B.Once a year       C.Once every two years.

20.What do kangaroos eat?

A.Fruit, leaves and grass.

B.Only grass.

C.Anything.

二、单项填空（本大题共20小题，每小题1分，共20分）

从下列每小题所给的A. B. C, D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项.

21.Thanks giving is_____American festival

A.a                            B. an                            C.the                        D.one

22.—How can I get some______ on space travel?

－You can scarch the Internet.

A. compositlon                B. message                     C. answer                  D.information

23.—What's tke tower's height?

—______meters.

A. Three hundreds and forty-eight     C. Three hundred and forty-eight

B. Three hundreds and forty eight     D. Three huadred and forty eight

24.I feel_____when I speak English, but I will be fine in a few days.

A. relaxed                      B.happy                   C. nervous         D.surprised

25. You can find out how people dig coal from the ground and use it to____energy.

A. create                      B.discover              C. invent                      D. find

  26.-have you______won any prizes before?

     -NO,I haven't.

    A. ever                      B.never                       C. even                      D. already

  27.-Wouid you like______orange juice?

     -OK,thanks.

    A. any                      B.an                       C.some                         D. little

  28.While my dad was out,we decided to ______David's game on his computer.

        A. up                      B.in                       C.down                         D. on

  29.You need to stand ina line and wait for your turn.Sometimes people are slow to get____the bus.

                 A. up                      B. in             C.down           D.on

30.Some of the world's greatest books_____long ago.

A. are written                                B. were written

C. will be writtea                            D. can be written

31.—Idon't know if he_____to Kate's birthday party.

-He's sure to go because he _____her very well.

A. goes knows                                B. go,know

C. will go,will know                        D. will go,knows

32.The story doesn't I need to be true!You can_______

A. pick it up                    B. make it up        C. take it up                  D. put it up

33.Deng Yaping's my hero___she's one of the best table tennis players in the world.

A. but                        B. though            C.because                      D.since

34.Ajourney by train is______than by coach, but a lot more expensive.

A> more relaxing                         B. Ihe most relaxing

C more relaxed                           D.the most relaxed

35.—Hey, Daming! How Was your weekend?

—____! I went to Shenzhen.

A.Good idea                      B.All right                   C.Bad luck      D.Pretty good

36.Yesterday I_____in the street when an accident happened.

A.am walking                         B.walk                   C.was walking   D.walked

37.When you read a story, you don't need______every word.

A. understood              B. understanding   C. to understand              D. to understanding

38.1 asked her_____at me that day, but she said she forgot it.

A. why she smiled                      B. why did she smile

C. why does she smile                  D. why she smiles

39. 一What are you going to do this weekend?

—We____have a picnic, but we're not sure.

A. need                     B. must             C. might      D.have to

40.—The car stopped in time, but the boy fell off his bike and hurt his knee.

   —_________.

     A.Great!                           B. I'm glad to hear that.

C.That's too bad!                 D.Well done!

三、完形填空（本大题共10小题，毎小题1分，共10分）

阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各题所给的A.B. C. D四个选项中选出最佳选项.

Do you hope to do a lot of homework every evening? Are you 41 in your English

classes? Who will be your math teacher? Maybe you havc lots of questions in your mind 42_ you go to a new school.

Well, I want to give you some good 43 for these problems.

First, keep calm (平静).Don’t 44 about all the problems you have. Put your heart into learning and you can find 45 you are interested in. Do it actively.

Second, try your best to finish your bomework__46_. Don't spend a lot of time on it. Do more reading or writing in English. Think about the problems you havc and 47 them at once. Don't stay up late, or you can't study well the next day.

Third, invent something instead of copying or repeating. If you can 48 the words in yourown way, you can tell your teacher you don't like the way of copying them again and again. Be sure, you must pass the test. I think your teacher will agree 49 you. And they can give you some interesting work to do.

School is really a good place for us to learn. Believe in your tachers and 50.You are the best one and you can do every thing well.

41. A. interest                  B. interested                   C. interesting                  D. sure

42. A. before                      B. when                           C. after                      D. and

43. A. advises                  B. advices                       C. advise                      D. advice

44. A. worry                      B. look                           C. think                      D. talk

45. A. everything                  B. anything                       C. something                  D. nothing

46. A. slow                      B. quickly                       C. slowly                      D. quick

47. A. make                      B. ask                           C. answer                      D. solve

48. A. write                      B. remember                       C. get                          D. read

49. A. to                          B. no                           C. with                      D. about

50. A. your                      B. you                           C. yours                      D. yourself

四、阅读理解解（本大题共15小题: 51〜60小题,毎小题2分；61〜65小题，每小题1分；共25分）

阅读下面的材科，从每小题所给的A, B、C, D四个选项中选出最出最佳选项。

A

Moving(搬家）isn’t easy for anyone，espcially for kids.

Angela 10, describes the day she was moving“I was 7 years old when my dad told me we were moving out of the city.I was really excited to finally be getting my own room and maybe even a dog.But I was also very afraid Iwouldn’t make any friends or flnd my way around my new school.

Evan remembers the day he was moving a  little differently:“I had to move at the end of the sixth grade, because my parents were getting divorced(离婚). It was terrible. In one summer, I had to move from Connecticut to California and get used to everything new — including living just with my mom.

When you find out that you're moving.a million thoughts may run through your head. The sext place those tboughts should go is simple: out of your mouth! If you’re afraid  that you wont’t make new friends, oervous about riding the bus with 30 new kids, or upset because you have to give up your positios as captain of football team, don't keep it to yourself. Whatever you're feeling. talk to your mom or dad about it. They'll probably have some good ideas and advice.

51. How did Angela feel about moving?

A. Sad and afraid.                  B. Excited but afraid.

C. Nervous and lonely.              D. Worried and nervous.

52.              Why did Evan move to Californla?

A. Because his parents changed their jobs.   B. Because he went to a new school

C. Because he bought a new house there.    D. Because his parents got divorced.

53.              Who is the passage for?

A. Childern                    B. Parents.      C. Teachers.     D.Doctors.

54. What should you do if you are worried about moving?

A. Talk about it to your parents.                   B. Keep it to yourself.

C. Write it on your notebook.            D. Talk about it to your classmates.

55.              Which of the following is TRUE?

A. Moving isn't easy only for children.

B. Aogela moved out of the city at the age of 10.

C. Evan moved when he was in Grade Six.

D. Ptrents like to move when they are young.

B

A ship was sailing on the sea. A black boy who worked at the end of the ship fell into the sea. He shouted for help, but the wind was so strong that the people on the ship could not hear him.

The ship sailed farther and farther and he felt he was going to sink “Maybc I need to give up?” he said to himself. At this time, he thought of the kind and friendly old captain.“No!The captain must be searching for me!” he thought. Then he was full of power and began to swim.

Finally the captain found the black boy was missing. So be ordered his ship to return to look for the boy. But someone told the captain,“ A long time has passed. He must have been drowned (淹死) or have been eaten by a shark The captain shouted. “Shut up”！Finally, the ship arrived and the captain saved the kid.

When the boy woke up, the captain asked, “How can you insist(坚持) for such a long time?” The boy answered, “I knew you would save me!I was very sure.”

It is a lucky thing to belleve a person. Nowadays maybe we wouldn't like to believe many things in this world. I still believe that there are more kind people than indifferent(冷漠)people. Believc it or not, it depends on you!

56.              Which One about the black boy is TRUE?

A.He was a worker on the ship.

B.He was the son of the captain.

C.He fell into the sea and died.

D.He couldn't swim at all.

57. What's the meaning of the underlined word “sink” in Chinese?

A.上升                        B.成功                           C.咆哮                             D.下沉

58. Why could the boy insist till the ship arrived?

A. Because he thought of his parents.

B. Because he strongly believed the captain would save him.

C. Because the captain asked him not to give up.

D. Because he was strong enough to swim for a whole day.

59. What do you think of the captain?

A. He is a rich man.

B. He is a cool man.

C. He is a careless man.  

D. He is a kind and helpful man.

60. What a the best title of this passage?

A.A terrible trip.

B.A kind captain.

C.The power of belief.

D. A big wind on the sea.

C

Earth Hour is an              unusual event which asks people to turn off all lights and not to use tbe power for an hour. The aim is to let people think about the planet we live on and energy we use.

Earth Hour encourages people around the world! to turn off the power at the same time for one hour. It started in Australia in 1997. Since then it has become a global (全球性的）event In 2013, millions of people in 7,000 cities and towns around the world turned off their lights for 60 minutes at the end of March. Every year the landmarks (标志性建筑）and the well-known buikdings around the world take part in it and“go dark”for Earth Hour.

Earth Hour bis organized by the World Wildlife Fund (WWF) .The director(倡导者) of Earth Hour Global， WWF came up with the idea of Earth Hour because he wanted to ask people to do something positive(积极的）to help the planet. Turning off the lights for an hour can make a small difference to the amount of energy we use. But Earth Hour is also a symbolic （象征性的）event to make people think about the problems of climate chaoges.

Why March? Tke end of March is around the time of spring and autumn equinoxes (昼夜平分点)in the northern and southern bemispheres (半球)respectively (分别地），so the sunset time in both hemispheres is at similar times. This means that a global “lights out” event has the most visual impact at this time of year.

61.The purpose of Earth Hour is________.

A.to make it a global event

B.to ask people to think about our earth and energy

C.to ask all people to turn off lights for an hour

D.to make the landmarks and the famous buildings more beautiful

62.              When did the Earth Hour start?

A. In 2003.                      B. In 2000.                   C In 1997.                   D. In 1995.

63.              The usderlined phrase “visual impact”means_______.

A.视觉效应              B。听觉效应              C.动态效应              D.嗅觉效应

64.              Which of the following is NOT true?

A.Australia was the first country to have Earth Hour.

B.People will understand our planet better through Earth Hour.

C.Earth Hour is helpless to our eovironment.

D.We have Earth Hour once a year.

65.              what's the best title for this passage?

A.When is Earth Hour?

B.What is Earth Hour?

C.Who organized Earth Hour?

D.What should we do for Earth Hour?

五、补全对话（本大题共5小题,每小题1分，共5分）

根据对话内容，从方框内选择恰当的句子将对话补充完整.(选项中有两项是多余的）

A:Escuse me. I am a reporter from a student magazine.__66

B:Sure,please.

A:Where do you come from?

B:  67

A:When did you arrive in Tianjin?

B:  68

A:How do you like this city?

B:The people here are very friendly. But I'm still not used to the weather here. I have a sore throat (喉咙痛)today.

A:The weather here is kind of dry. Drinking more water can make you feel better.

B:Thanks for your suggestion.

              A:  69

B:Of course not. I come here for watching the Tianjin Eye. And then I'm planning to go to Beijing for a tour.

A: Great Thank you for answering my qoestions. 70

B: Thank you.

2017年北辰区中考模拟考试试卷

英 语

第Ⅱ卷

注意事项：

1.用黑色墨水的钢笔或签字笔将答案写在“答题卡”上。

2.本卷共四大题，共40分。

六、完成句子（本大题共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）

根据所给中文意思完成句子，每空限填一词。

71.谢谢你带我们参观。

Thank you for______ us______.

72.他经常用字典査生词。

   He often______ ______ the new words in the dictionary.

73.他们仍有充足的时间去得分。

There's still_____ _____time for them to score.

74.我很开心宣读摄影比赛的获奖名单。

I am very happy to_____ _____the winners of the pboto competition.

75.为了保护野生动物，政府己经设立了许多自然公园。

In order to protect wild animals, the government has_____ _____lots of nature parks.

七、任务型阅读((本大题共5小题，毎小题1分，共5分)

阅读下面短文，根据短文内容完成句子。

Do you ride a bicycle? More and more people enjoy travelling or going to work by bike now. but do you know what the origin (起源) of bicycles is?

The early bicycles were first made in Gernany in 1817. At that time, they looked like scooters（滑板车）and didn't  have pedals (踏板). Then，around 1870, a new bicycle named the “high-wheeler” appeared. This kind of bicycle had one large wheel at the front aod a small one at the back. The front one was as high as 5 feet. That’s why it was named the “high-wheeler”.

About 15 years later, an English bicycle businessman made the first bicycle that was very safe for people to ride. The wheels on this sife bicycle were both the same size. Also,the size was smaller than before. That made it easier and safer to ride.

But duriog the early 1900s, many cars were made. People lost interest in riding bicycles because they wanted something faster.

Today, more and more people are interested in riding bicycles because it's good for their health. Riding bicycles now is more like a sport than a of transportation.

76. The passage is about the developnent of______.

77. Around 1870,a new bicycle named the “________” appeared.

78. About 15 years later, the wheels on the bicycle were both              ________.

79.Duriog the early 1900s, people weren't_______in riding bicycles as before.

八、综合填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）

Australia is really a good place to live and the quality of life there is very high. Everybody lives a free life and they don't need to be in rush, even for work. People in Australia are very f 81 . We can ask them for help at any time and they are a_82_ very pleased to help us. Once I asked a lady the way to the bus station. She told me the way and then even t 83 me to the   right place. These kinds of things happen almost every day, which is reslly very sweet.

The e 84 in Australia is quite good. The sky is so blue, the water is so clean and the seas are always so beautiful. What I like most is the Gold Coast. The Gold Cotst is one of the World's most p 85 holiday destination（目的地）. We can relax，swim and snrf there. The climate in Australia is very good. Even in w 86 , people can still wear very few clothes.

As a country that has only been established(建立)for a little over 200 years,Australia’s international reputation(声誉)is very high and the people

Of Australia are k 87 as the friendly people you could hope to meet.

The most f 88 city is Sydney. During the two days in Sydney，1 went to many famous places I 89 Rose Bay, Sydney Opera House, Bongdi Bay. Royal Botanic Garden and so on. We also took a ship on the sea and w 90 the Sydney Opera House in a different way.

It is really an exciting trip in Australia. I hope everyone will come to Australin someday.

九.书面表达（本大题共15分）

91.上周末小明的父母带着他去看爷爷奶奶。请你根据提示要点写一篇英语短文.

提示要点：

1.小明和父母去看爷爷奶奶，爷爷奶奶很高兴，准备了丰盛的午餐。

2.吃饭的时候，小明边吃边玩Pad,小明的父亲給朋友打电话，妈妈给朋友发信息。

3.没人和爷爷奶奶说话，他们很不开心。

4.说说你对此事的看法。

要求：

（1)词数：80-100个。

（2）开头己给出，不计入总次数。

（3) 要点齐全，行文连贯,可适当发挥。

Last weekend Xiaoming's parents took him to see his grandparents.________

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2018年天津市中考英语模拟测试题参考答案

一、听力理解（本大题共20小题，每小题1分，共20分）

1.B                2.A              3.B              4.C                5.C                6.C                 7.B                8.B              9.A              10.A

11.C  12.C              13.B              14.A  15.A                16.B                 17.A                18.C              19.B              20.A

二、单项填空（本大题共20小题，              每小题1分，共20分）                                         

21.B  22.D              23.B              24.C              25.A              26.A              27.C              28.B              29.D              30.B

31.0  32.B              33.C              34.A              35.D              36.C              37.C              38.A              39.C              40.C

三、完形填空（本大题共10小题,              毎小题1分，共10分）                                         

41.B  42.A              43 D              44.A              45.C              46.B              47.D              48.B              49.C              50.D

四、阅读理解（本大题共15小题：51〜60小题,每小题2分：61〜65小题，每小题1分:

共25分）

51.B              52.D              53.A              54.A              55.C

56.A              57.D              58.B              59.D              60.C

61.B              62.C              63.A              64.C              65.B

五、补全对话（本大题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）

66.C    67.G    68.F    69.B     70.D

六、完成句子 (本大题共5小题，毎小题 2分，共10分)

71. showing, around   72. looks, up 73. plenty off 74. read out   75. set up

七、任务型阅读（本大题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）

76. hicycles      77.high-wheeler              78. the same size

   79, interested    80. keep healthy /stay healthy /take exercise

八、综合填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）

81. friendly     82. always    83. took     84. environment                85. popular

86. winter       87. known    88. famous    89. like/including   90. Watched

九、书面表达（本大题共15分）

Last weekend Xiaoming's parents took him to see his grandparents. Graadpa and Grandma were very happy to see them, so they cooked a big meaL. But when they were eating. Xiaoming began to play with his Pad, his father was talking with his friend on the mobile-phone loudly, while his mother was busy sending messages to her friends. Gmadpa and grandma felt lonely because nobody talked with them. At tast. Grandpa was so angry that he left the table.

I think if we visit the old, we should care about their feelings. It's not polite to hold our pbones all the time and not to talk with them.

各档次的给分范围和要求：

第五档：（13〜15分）能写明全部内容要点,语言基本无误；行文连贯，表达清楚。

第四档：（10〜12分）能写明全部或大部分内容要点；语言有少量错误，行文基本连贯，表达基本清楚。

第三档：(7~9分）能写明大部分内容要点，语言有较多错误；尚能达意。

第二档：(4〜6分)只能写出少部分内容要点；语言错误很多，只有个别句子可读。

第一档：（0~3分）只能写出与所要求内容有关的一些单词。

一、听力理解（本大题共20小题,毎小题1分，共20分）

A）在下列每小题内，你将听到一个或两个句子并看到供选择的A、B、C三幅图画。找出与你所听句子内容相匹配的图画。

1.              W: Alice's pen pal is from China.

2.              M: Wei Gang was playing chess when the accident happened.

3.              W: Jenny will go to Alice's birthday party on June 8th.

4.              M: Father's Day is coming. I'm going to buy a T-shirt for my father.

B)下面你将听到十组对话，每组对话都有一个问题。根据对话内容，从每组所给的A、B、C三个选项中找出能回答所提问题的最佳选项。

5.

W: What are you going to do tonight.

M: Nothing special.

W： What about going to the cinema?

M： Good idea!

6.

W: Your uncle comes from Australia, doesn't he?

M: No, he comes from Japan.

7.

W: Our school sports meet is comisg. Michael which sport will you take part in? M: I want to take pari in the boys'100— metre race.

8.

M: Hi. Miss Lin. How often do you clean your room?

W: I do that every Wednesday and Saturday.

9.

M: Would you like some coffee?

W: No, I prefer a cup of water.

10.

W: Sorry. I'm late.

M: Oh, it's two o'clock now. The metting has been on for twenty minutes.

11.

W: John. Do you want to be a singer in the future?

M: No. I want to be an engineer.

12.

W: Jack. Miss Yang asked you to go to the teachers' office.

M: OK, Betty.

13.

W; You are late again.

M: Sorry! There was so much traffie on the street.

14.

W: Oh. These photos are woodcrful. How did you take them?

M: I took them with my mobile phone.

C)听下面长对话或独白。每段长对话或独白后都有几个问题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。

听下面一段材料，回答第15至第17题。

W: HI. Tom. Have you finished your maths homework?

M: Not yet. I'm going to finish it tonight. How about you. Amy?

W: I haven't started yet.I feel it's too difficult for me.Can you help me with it?

M: Sure. I'll be glad to help you. Why not come to my bouse after school? We can do our homework together.             

W: That's a good idea. 1'11 arrive at half past flve.

M: What about your English? Have you done that?

W: Oh. yes. I've finished it. It's easy.

M: Oh. I've done only a bit of that. I'm having trouble with it. Maybe you can help me.

W: Of course. We'll help each other this afternoon.

听下面—段材料，回答第18至第20题。

M: There are 47 different kinds -of kangaroos . Kangaroos have very long strong legs. These are used for jumping. They also have strong tails. used for resting on.

Mother kangaroos have a pouch at the front. They have one baby each year. When it is born，the baby kangaroo goes straight into its mother’s pouch. The baby kangaroo stays there for six months.

The biggest kangaroos stand more than 2 metres tall, and their back are so strong that they can jump about 9 metres. They are very strong， but only eat fruit, leaves and grass.